I heard the saying that "when you back a horse, you essentially lay the other(s)" or "when you lay a horse you basically back the other".
Is that theoretically or practically speaking? By this I am asking, are the amounts of money you are 'backing' in the ladder, splitting between the rest of the horses in the lay field?
Lets assume we have a 2 horse race and on one horse there is no activity, no one matching amounts, lay and back sums are only idling at a certain price.
Will backing/laying on the first horse move the price of the second horse although the amounts are not getting matched for the second horse? If yes, how is this possible?
If I am to lay the second horse at 2.0 odds and no one is matching, how is a lay on the first horse going to push my odds?
Sorry if the question doesn't make too much sense, English not my first language and I am thinking out loud in my native tongue
Question regarding price change influence
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Betfair employ what's called 'cross matching' on the markets so in a two runner race laying a horse at 2 is the same as backing the other at 2 and betfair will
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Bys1lu-18wo
It's practical as betfair use what's called cross matching. In your 2 runner example a lay at 2 would also appear as a back at 2 on the other runner. With more than two runners Betfair use the aggregate book percentages of all the other runners to recreate the opposing odds.tiberigc wrote: ↑Mon Aug 31, 2020 4:34 pmI heard the saying that "when you back a horse, you essentially lay the other(s)" or "when you lay a horse you basically back the other".
Is that theoretically or practically speaking? By this I am asking, are the amounts of money you are 'backing' in the ladder, splitting between the rest of the horses in the lay field?
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Bys1lu-18wo